Home | Fatwa | Will reciting the translation of a verse of Sajdah necessitate a Sajdah Tilawah?

Will reciting the translation of a verse of Sajdah necessitate a Sajdah Tilawah?

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Nasihah (Advice): The command of prostration

Sayyiduna Abu Hurairah Radhiyallahu Anhu reports that Rasulullah Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam said: “When a son of Adam recites a (verse of) Sajdah and prostrates, Shaitan withdraws weeping, saying: ‘Woe to me! The son of Adam was commanded to prostrate and he prostrated, and Paradise will be his; I was commanded to prostrate and I refused, so I am doomed to Hell.” (Ibn Majah)

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Question and Answer:

  1. Does the recital of the translation of a verse of Sajdah necessitate the performance of a Sajdah?

(Question published as received)

  1. If a word-for-word translation of a verse of Sajdah is read aloud, it will be necessary (Waajib) for the reader to perform a Sajdah Tilaawat. If a person hears a word-for-word translation of a verse of Sajdah read aloud and knows that this is a translation of a verse of Sajdah, then Sajdah is also necessary (Waajib) upon the listener. If the listener does not know that it is the translation of a verse of Sajdah, then Sajdah is not required.

If an explanation of a verse of Sajdah is spoken aloud, rather than its literal translation, then there is no Sajdah for the speaker or the listener.(Shaami 2/105)

And Allah Ta’ala Knows Best

Mufti Ismaeel Bassa

 

Confirmation:

Mufti Ebrahim Desai

 

(The answer hereby given is specifically based on the question asked and should be read together with the question asked. Islamic rulings on this Q&A newsletter are answered in accordance to the Hanafi Fiqh unless otherwise stated.) 

 

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